QCM : Pharmacology Essentials for Healthcare — 20 questions

Questions et réponses du QCM

1. Which drug is a centrally acting alpha2-adrenergic agonist used for hypertension and opioid withdrawal treatment?

Clonidine
Pilocarpine
Propranolol
Atropine

Clonidine

Explication

Clonidine is identified as a centrally acting alpha2-agonist that reduces sympathetic outflow and can be used in hypertension and opioid withdrawal. The other options act through different receptor systems.

2. What is the expected effect of beta-adrenergic receptor stimulation on the uterus?

It relaxes the uterus
It increases uterine secretions
It contracts the uterus
It blocks uterine smooth muscle entirely

It relaxes the uterus

Explication

The source states that stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors relaxes the uterus. The other choices describe effects not supported by the material.

3. Which antipsychotic is least likely among the listed atypical agents to cause extrapyramidal symptoms?

Chlorpromazine
Haloperidol
Fluphenazine
Aripiprazole

Aripiprazole

Explication

Aripiprazole is specifically noted as the least likely among the listed atypical antipsychotics to cause extrapyramidal symptoms. Haloperidol and chlorpromazine are associated with EPS in the source material.

4. Which adverse effect can appear after treatment with haloperidol?

Tardive deafness
Pseudo-parkinsonian syndrome
Malignant hyperthermia
Serotonin syndrome

Pseudo-parkinsonian syndrome

Explication

Haloperidol is described as causing pseudo-parkinsonian syndrome, an extrapyramidal reaction. The other options are not the adverse effect highlighted in the source.

5. What important reaction can occur if metronidazole is taken with alcohol?

A disulfiram-like reaction
A severe nephrotoxic crisis
A serotonin blockade syndrome
A photosensitivity collapse

A disulfiram-like reaction

Explication

Metronidazole should not be combined with alcohol because it can cause a disulfiram-like reaction. This is the classic interaction emphasized in the source.

6. Which antimicrobial lacks coverage against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

Ceftazidime
Ertapenem
Meropenem
Piperacillin-tazobactam

Ertapenem

Explication

Ertapenem is specifically noted as not covering Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The other agents are commonly used when Pseudomonas coverage is needed.

7. Which diuretic is used to reduce cerebral edema in acute brain injury?

Hydrochlorothiazide
Acetazolamide
Furosemide
Mannitol

Mannitol

Explication

Mannitol is the osmotic diuretic used for acute cerebral edema in brain injury settings. The other drugs are diuretics with different main uses and mechanisms.

8. Which transporter is inhibited by furosemide?

Aquaporin-2 channel
NaCl cotransporter
Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2
NaK2Cl transporter

NaK2Cl transporter

Explication

Furosemide acts in the loop of Henle by inhibiting the NaK2Cl transporter. The NaCl cotransporter is the target of thiazides, not loop diuretics.

9. Which factor is used to describe how a drug distributes between lipid and water phases?

Clearance coefficient
Therapeutic range
Bioequivalence ratio
Partition constant

Partition constant

Explication

The partition constant is the physical property describing distribution between lipid and water phases. It helps explain how readily a drug moves between body compartments.

10. How does sodium bicarbonate increase salicylate elimination in poisoning?

By urinary ion trapping
By inhibiting hepatic metabolism
By enhancing protein binding
By increasing gastric absorption

By urinary ion trapping

Explication

Sodium bicarbonate raises urine pH, promoting urinary ion trapping of salicylate and increasing renal elimination. It does not work by increasing absorption or protein binding.

11. What is the main reason sodium bicarbonate is used in salicylate poisoning?

It blocks salicylate absorption in the stomach
It directly neutralizes salicylate in the bloodstream
It accelerates hepatic metabolism of salicylate
It increases renal elimination by urinary ion trapping

It increases renal elimination by urinary ion trapping

Explication

Sodium bicarbonate raises urine pH, which traps ionized salicylate in the urine and increases its excretion. It does not primarily work by blocking absorption or hepatic metabolism.

12. Which factor best determines how a drug moves between body compartments?

Its protein content and shelf life
Its partition constant, ionization, and molecular size
Its color, formulation, and dosing schedule
Its brand name and route of purchase

Its partition constant, ionization, and molecular size

Explication

Drug distribution depends on physicochemical properties such as partition constant, degree of ionization, and size. These factors influence how easily the drug crosses membranes and partitions into tissues.

13. Which antidote is used to reverse opioid overdose with respiratory depression and bilateral miosis?

Atropine
Naloxone
N-acetylcysteine
Flumazenil

Naloxone

Explication

Naloxone is the opioid antidote and is used when opioid toxicity causes respiratory depression and pinpoint pupils. N-acetylcysteine is for toxic analgesic metabolite poisoning, not opioid overdose.

14. Which treatment is used to prevent liver failure after an overdose that produces a toxic quinone imine metabolite?

Naloxone
N-acetylcysteine
Activated charcoal hemoperfusion
Atropine

N-acetylcysteine

Explication

N-acetylcysteine is the antidote used to prevent liver failure in this type of analgesic overdose. Naloxone treats opioid toxicity, while hemoperfusion is a blood-cleansing technique rather than a specific antidote.

15. Which drug is the best initial add-on therapy for a newly diagnosed overweight patient with type 2 diabetes and HbA1c of 7.5%?

Insulin degludec
Canagliflozin
Digoxin
Metformin

Metformin

Explication

Metformin is the preferred early treatment for many patients with type 2 diabetes, including newly diagnosed overweight patients. Insulin degludec is an insulin analog, and digoxin has no role in diabetes treatment.

16. Which adverse effect is associated with canagliflozin in clinical use?

Genital infections
Ototoxicity
Thrombocytopenia
Hypothyroidism

Genital infections

Explication

Canagliflozin can cause genital infections. The other options are linked to different drug classes or conditions and are not the characteristic adverse effect highlighted here.

17. Which oral anticoagulant directly inhibits factor Xa?

Digoxin
Apixaban
Evolocumab
Enoxaparin

Apixaban

Explication

Apixaban is a direct factor Xa inhibitor used to reduce clot formation. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside, evolocumab is a PCSK9 blocker, and enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin.

18. Which drug lowers LDL cholesterol by blocking PCSK9?

Evolocumab
Apixaban
Diltiazem
Carvedilol

Evolocumab

Explication

Evolocumab is a monoclonal antibody that reduces LDL cholesterol by blocking PCSK9. The other drugs act on coagulation, calcium channels, or beta receptors instead.

19. Which drug is used to treat bleeding esophageal varices by causing vasoconstriction?

Octreotide
Amiodarone
Lisinopril
Furosemide

Octreotide

Explication

Octreotide, a somatostatin analog, is used for variceal bleeding because it causes vasoconstriction. The other drugs are used for arrhythmia, diuresis, or hypertension.

20. Amiodarone therapy is associated with which thyroid effect within months of treatment?

A guaranteed cure of hyperthyroidism
Immediate adrenal insufficiency
An increased risk of hypothyroidism
Permanent suppression of all thyroid hormones in every patient

An increased risk of hypothyroidism

Explication

Amiodarone can alter thyroid function and increases the risk of hypothyroidism within months of therapy. The other choices are not the described clinical effect.

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Clonidine — role?

Centrally acting alpha2-agonist for hypertension.

Parasympatholytic drugs — effect?

Antagonize parasympathetic signaling, reduce secretions.

Beta-adrenergic receptors — effect?

Stimulation relaxes the uterus.

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