QCM : Consumer Studies Grade 12 Revision — 33 questions

Questions et réponses du QCM

1. What does entrepreneurship involve?

Identifying a potentially profitable opportunity and organising resources to produce and market goods or services
Providing financial support to businesses without participating in production or marketing
Selling existing products without assessing customer needs or available resources
Managing an established company by reducing its workforce and operating costs

Identifying a potentially profitable opportunity and organising resources to produce and market goods or services

Explication

Entrepreneurship involves recognising a potentially profitable business opportunity and organising the resources needed to produce and market goods or services.

2. Which consideration most directly indicates whether a proposed small-scale product is suitable for the market?

Whether customer demand exists for the product
Whether the product requires no planning
Whether the owner prefers the product’s colour
Whether the business can avoid all quality control

Whether customer demand exists for the product

Explication

A suitable product responds to customer demand and has a viable market. A product without sufficient demand may be unsuitable even if it is easy to produce.

3. A small producer wants to reduce waste and ensure that every batch has consistent quality. Which combination would best support this goal?

Large stockpiles, informal production methods, no inspections and unsuitable equipment
Suitable equipment, reliable raw materials, skilled labour, planning and quality control
Expensive advertising, distant suppliers, low-quality materials and rapid production
Limited storage, irregular materials, untrained labour and minimal planning

Suitable equipment, reliable raw materials, skilled labour, planning and quality control

Explication

Efficient production depends on suitable equipment, reliable raw materials, effective storage, skilled labour, good planning and quality control. These factors help maintain quality and reduce waste.

4. Which practice best reflects sustainable production?

Using recycled paper and local raw materials while avoiding toxic packaging
Using non-biodegradable packaging to extend product shelf life
Discarding leftover materials and relying on distant raw-material suppliers
Using toxic materials and increasing water consumption without storage facilities

Using recycled paper and local raw materials while avoiding toxic packaging

Explication

Sustainable production can include using leftover or recycled materials, solar energy and local raw materials, while avoiding toxic and non-biodegradable materials.

5. What is the main purpose of a marketing plan based on the 5P strategy?

To focus exclusively on where a product is manufactured
To organise how a product will be produced and marketed through product, price, place, promotion and people
To replace production planning with advertising and sales discounts
To calculate production costs without considering customers or distribution

To organise how a product will be produced and marketed through product, price, place, promotion and people

Explication

A marketing plan organises production and marketing using the five Ps: product, price, place, promotion and people. Place concerns availability, while promotion communicates product value.

6. Which sequence best describes the purposes of advertising?

Set wages, control inventory, approve suppliers and prepare financial statements
Reduce product quality, limit consumer information, remove competition and increase waste
Calculate production costs, purchase equipment, store materials and employ workers
Inform consumers, persuade them to buy, remind them about the product and create consumer appeal

Inform consumers, persuade them to buy, remind them about the product and create consumer appeal

Explication

Advertising is intended to inform consumers, persuade them to purchase, remind them about the product and create consumer appeal.

7. A business sells 100 cups at R17,00 each. What is its total income from these sales?

R1 020,00
R1 700,00
R17 000,00
R7 000,00

R1 700,00

Explication

Income is calculated by multiplying the number of cups by the selling price: 100 × R17,00 = R1 700,00.

8. A business produces 100 cups at a cost of R10,20 per cup. What is the total production cost?

R1 020,00
R10 200,00
R1 700,00
R102,00

R1 020,00

Explication

The production cost is 100 × R10,20, which equals R1 020,00.

9. A product costs R80 to produce and has a 25% mark-up. What selling price should be calculated using the mark-up method?

R85
R100
R105
R125

R100

Explication

A 25% mark-up on R80 is R20. Adding the mark-up to the production cost gives a selling price of R100.

10. What does a use-by date indicate on a food product?

The period during which the packaging remains recyclable
The date by which the food is expected to have its best flavor
The last date on which the food should be consumed safely
The date when the product was manufactured

The last date on which the food should be consumed safely

Explication

A use-by date indicates the last date on which a food should be consumed safely. A best-before date mainly concerns expected quality rather than safety.

11. Why are allergens identified on food labels?

To show the country where the product was packaged
To warn consumers about ingredients that may cause allergic reactions
To provide the complete composition of the product
To indicate how much energy the product contains

To warn consumers about ingredients that may cause allergic reactions

Explication

Allergen labels warn consumers about ingredients that may cause allergic reactions. They do not replace the complete ingredient list.

12. Which environmental benefit is associated with organic farming?

Increasing reliance on synthetic chemicals for higher yields
Reducing synthetic chemical use and supporting biodiversity
Reducing the need for soil management through intensive production
Replacing natural ecosystems with larger monocultures

Reducing synthetic chemical use and supporting biodiversity

Explication

Organic farming can benefit the environment by reducing synthetic chemical use, protecting biodiversity, improving soil health, and reducing pollution.

13. Why can organic products be more expensive for consumers?

They are produced only from imported ingredients
They generally contain more artificial preservatives
Their production costs can be higher
They require more synthetic chemicals during cultivation

Their production costs can be higher

Explication

A negative economic impact of organic farming is that higher production costs can make organic products more expensive. Organic products are not necessarily more costly because of preservatives or imported ingredients.

14. Which situation best describes food security?

A household consumes enough calories from a single food type
A household purchases only food certified as organic
A household has reliable access to adequate and safe food
A household stores food without checking its safety

A household has reliable access to adequate and safe food

Explication

Food security means having reliable access to adequate and safe food. It concerns dependable access and safety, not a particular production method or single food source.

15. Which statement correctly distinguishes hypoglycaemia from hyperglycaemia?

Both terms describe inadequate insulin action without reference to glucose levels
Hypoglycaemia is abnormally high blood glucose, while hyperglycaemia is abnormally low blood glucose
Hypoglycaemia is abnormally low blood glucose, while hyperglycaemia is abnormally high blood glucose
Both terms describe abnormally low blood glucose levels

Hypoglycaemia is abnormally low blood glucose, while hyperglycaemia is abnormally high blood glucose

Explication

Hypoglycaemia refers to abnormally low blood glucose, whereas hyperglycaemia refers to abnormally high blood glucose.

16. Why may a low-glycaemic-index food help someone manage blood glucose levels?

It causes glucose to enter the blood rapidly
It supplies glucose without affecting blood glucose levels
It releases glucose more slowly
It prevents the body from absorbing all carbohydrates

It releases glucose more slowly

Explication

Low-GI foods release glucose more slowly, helping provide better control of blood glucose levels. Rapid rises are more characteristic of high-GI foods.

17. Which description best defines diabetes?

A temporary increase in blood glucose after any meal
A disorder caused solely by insufficient dietary calcium
A condition involving inadequate insulin action and disturbed blood glucose control
A condition in which blood glucose remains consistently below normal

A condition involving inadequate insulin action and disturbed blood glucose control

Explication

Diabetes involves inadequate insulin action and disturbed control of blood glucose levels. It is not defined solely by a temporary rise, calcium deficiency, or consistently low glucose.

18. How do calcium and vitamin D help prevent and manage osteoporosis?

They support bone formation and mineralisation
They eliminate the need for physical activity to maintain bones
They prevent all mineral loss by stopping bone remodeling
They increase the rapid release of glucose into the bloodstream

They support bone formation and mineralisation

Explication

Calcium and vitamin D support bone formation and mineralisation, helping prevent and manage osteoporosis. They do not eliminate normal bone remodeling or replace other aspects of bone health.

19. Which organ is primarily affected by Hepatitis A, a foodborne disease associated with poor sanitation and inadequate personal hygiene?

The liver
The kidneys
The stomach and intestines
The lungs

The liver

Explication

Hepatitis A affects the liver and is closely linked to poor sanitation and inadequate personal hygiene. Gastroenteritis, by contrast, mainly affects the stomach and intestines.

20. Which situation provides a recognized route for transmitting E. coli?

Drinking sewage-contaminated water
Touching uncontaminated packaging
Breathing air in a well-ventilated room
Drinking safely treated water

Drinking sewage-contaminated water

Explication

E. coli can be transmitted through sewage-contaminated water or food, including contaminated fish. Safe treated water reduces this route of infection.

21. Which combination of conditions can contribute to a foodborne disease outbreak?

Unsafe storage, poor hygiene, and cross-contamination
Sealed packaging, adequate cooking, and sanitation
Refrigeration, handwashing, and treated water
Proper cooking, safe storage, and clean utensils

Unsafe storage, poor hygiene, and cross-contamination

Explication

Outbreaks can result from contaminated food or water, inadequate cooking, poor hygiene, unsafe storage, and cross-contamination.

22. Which statement best defines fashion?

A clothing rule that applies equally in every historical period
A personal way of dressing that remains unchanged over time
A style of dress accepted and adopted during a particular period
A garment chosen solely for comfort and practicality

A style of dress accepted and adopted during a particular period

Explication

Fashion is a style of dress or appearance accepted and adopted by people during a particular period. Individual or enduring ways of dressing are better described as style.

23. What happens during the peak stage of the fashion cycle?

Acceptance of the fashion begins to decrease
The fashion is first introduced to consumers
The fashion becomes obsolete and is no longer accepted
The fashion receives maximum acceptance

The fashion receives maximum acceptance

Explication

The peak represents maximum acceptance in the fashion cycle. Decline is the later stage in which acceptance decreases.

24. A garment designer wants to make a person appear taller and slimmer through visual effects; which design feature would best support that goal?

Vertical lines
Horizontal lines
A broad horizontal border
A wide belt at the waist

Vertical lines

Explication

Vertical lines create the optical illusion of length, whereas horizontal lines create the illusion of width.

25. Which quality should workplace clothing communicate to support a professional image?

Professionalism and suitability for the work environment
Informality regardless of workplace expectations
Personal novelty without regard to neatness
Comfort without consideration of appearance

Professionalism and suitability for the work environment

Explication

Workplace clothing should communicate professionalism, competence, neatness, suitability, and confidence. Clothing that is merely casual or novel may not fit every work environment.

26. Which approach best supports planning a versatile professional wardrobe?

Focusing on appearance while ignoring comfort and workplace requirements
Selecting clothes based only on current trends and decorative details
Considering the work environment, seasons, occasions, colour, comfort, and versatility
Choosing a separate outfit for one occasion without considering future use

Considering the work environment, seasons, occasions, colour, comfort, and versatility

Explication

A professional wardrobe should be planned around the work environment, seasons, occasions, colour, design elements and principles, comfort, and versatility. Considering these factors helps create a basic wardrobe with broader use.

27. Which housing option gives a person the right to use a home without giving them ownership of the property?

Buying full-title property
Buying sectional-title property
Renting the property
Building the property

Renting the property

Explication

Renting provides use of a home without ownership, while buying or building can result in ownership subject to financial and contractual responsibilities.

28. Which document proves that a person owns a home?

A deed of sale
A rental deposit receipt
A municipal service account
A title deed

A title deed

Explication

A title deed proves homeownership. A deed of sale records the agreement to purchase but is not itself proof of ownership.

29. How does responsibility for maintenance differ between full-title and sectional-title ownership?

Full-title owners maintain communal areas through a body corporate, while sectional-title owners maintain only public streets.
Full-title owners have no security duties, while sectional-title owners are responsible for all communal and private areas.
Full-title owners maintain their property, while sectional-title owners share responsibility for communal areas through the body corporate.
Full-title owners share all maintenance, while sectional-title owners maintain every part of the property themselves.

Full-title owners maintain their property, while sectional-title owners share responsibility for communal areas through the body corporate.

Explication

Full-title owners are responsible for their property’s security and maintenance. Sectional-title owners share responsibility for communal areas through the body corporate.

30. What is inflation?

A sustained decrease in prices that increases purchasing power
A sustained increase in the general price level that reduces purchasing power
A rise in household income that increases consumer demand
A temporary increase in the price of one specific product

A sustained increase in the general price level that reduces purchasing power

Explication

Inflation is a sustained increase in the general price level, which reduces the purchasing power of consumers’ income. A single product-price increase is not inflation.

31. What does the consumer price index measure?

Changes in the number of goods produced by municipalities
Changes in the total income earned by households
Changes in the interest rates charged by commercial banks
Changes in the prices of a basket of consumer goods and services

Changes in the prices of a basket of consumer goods and services

Explication

The consumer price index measures price changes in a basket of consumer goods and services and is used to calculate inflation.

32. Which statement correctly distinguishes simple interest from compound interest?

Simple interest uses the original principal, while compound interest uses the principal plus accumulated interest.
Simple interest applies to prices, while compound interest applies to household income.
Simple interest changes with inflation, while compound interest remains unaffected by interest rates.
Simple interest uses accumulated interest, while compound interest uses the original principal only.

Simple interest uses the original principal, while compound interest uses the principal plus accumulated interest.

Explication

Simple interest is calculated only on the original principal. Compound interest is calculated on the principal together with interest that has already accumulated.

33. What is a likely household consequence of an increase in interest rates?

Higher loan repayments increase disposable income because savings earn less interest.
Higher loan repayments reduce disposable income and may lower the household’s quality of life.
Lower loan repayments increase disposable income and improve the household’s quality of life.
Lower loan repayments reduce disposable income because households borrow less money.

Higher loan repayments reduce disposable income and may lower the household’s quality of life.

Explication

Higher interest rates raise repayment costs for borrowers, reducing disposable income and potentially lowering household quality of life.

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What does entrepreneurship involve?

Identifying profitable opportunities and organising resources to produce and market goods or services.

Which factors influence choosing a suitable small-scale product?

Customer demand, skills, resources, location, suppliers, product quality, and profitability.

What is required for efficient production of quality products?

Suitable equipment, reliable raw materials, effective storage, skilled labour, planning, and quality control.

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